card combination

AQ9
xxxxx

Play up to the 9. Assuming it loses to the Jen or Tack, lead up again. If a second small one appears, you should play the A. RHO has either KT, KJ, or JT. It's a restricted choice scenario; so play him for KT/KJ.

LHO can break this by playing a JT when you lead the first round of the suit! So what happens then? In the real world, I would probably always play for LHO to have split from JTx. (He has to do this in order to give you a losing option.)

However, if LHO is good enough to do this from Jxx/Txx, then he either has Jxx/Txx or JTx. Is this a restricted choice situation (LHO must play a big one from these holdings), so you should still play for KT/KJ on your right!?!?

My head hurts.

Palo Alto 8/20

(1N)* - 2C** - 3H
4H

*11-14
**majors

4H by south, lead is the CQ.

KQxxx
AQJx
Qxx
K

xx
xxxxx
Ax
Axxx

System (gasp) Notes

I've been learning a strong club recently, and we've sort of figured out a way to deal with intervention over our 1C openings. There's so little literature on this out there.

Our 1C is 16+, 17+ if balanced.

After 1C - (x) - ?
Redouble shows a semipositive (5-7) with three clubs. 1D is a semipositive without 3 clubs. All other bids are the same as if they hadn't come in.

After 1C - (1x) - ?
Double is any semipositive, all other bids natural. A cuebid shows a balanced GF with no stopper.

After 1C - (2x) - ?
Rubensohl applies. Responder assumes 1C opener has the 17-19 balanced. Cheapest new suit bids up to 2N are natural GF, otherwise 2N is a transfer to clubs, 3C transfer to 3D, etc. A transfer to their suit is a GF takeout. Cuebid shows a balanced GF with no stopper.

After 1C - (3x) - ?
Double is basically 6+ game forcing. This is a nightmare, but it's pretty much a nightmare in any system when the opps preempt to 3.

Some meta rules:
When responder shows a semipositive, we are in a force to 2NT. If the opps get to game after responder has shown a semipositive, we are in a force.

If we are in a force and neither player has shown any shape (1C - 2S - x - 4S), our first double is takeout. We invert standard forcing pass agreements.

If responder has shown some shape and we are in a force (1C - 2S - 3S - 4S, 1C - 2S - 3H - 4S), standard forcing pass agreements apply. Double is defensive, pass is offensive.

It's only happened twice, but so far we've gotten rich just by doubling when the opponents go crazy over our 1C opening and violate the law. We had one auction where I opened 1C with 5-5 majors, and it went 1C - 3C - x - 5C. I shrugged and doubled for takeout, which of course partner left in. It went down 3 against air. I especially love responder's cuebid (balanced GF, no stopper), since every time it's happened, they bid to the 4 level, I'm looking at 2 small, and I shrug and double.

Right now, the 1D (2+) opening is actually giving us the most headache.

forum hand

This was posted as a double dummy problem on the bridgebase forums.

How would you play single dummy? I would probably win SA, cash CA, strip the majors, then exit a club, "hoping for the opponents to make a mistake." (Thanks Eddie Kantar)

Would you be able to find the winning line single dummy? You'd basically have to be able to read LHO having exactly 2 clubs and 6 spades AND the DA (at least for the line I'm thinking)... it seems pretty esoteric to me.

Palo Alto 8/20

You have Qx KQ9xx xxx AKJ.

Opponents silent, you bid:
1D* - 1H
1N** - ?

*2+
**14-16

You play 2 way new minor.


w/r partner deals.

1S* - (x) - ?

*10-15, 5+ spades.

QJxx AQxx x T9xx

casual game 8/19

Partner deals.

p - 1C - 1D - 1S
2D - x* - 3D - 3S
ppp

Partner leads the D8 (3rd/low, or top of nothing)

Dummy is AKJ Kxx 72 QJxxx

You have Q QTx AQJT43 ATx

You win the DA, declarer follows small. Now what?

San Mateo Sectional 8/15

1. How do you play AJ98x opp Kx for 4 tricks?

2. You get to 4H on
1N - p - 2C - (x)
2H - p - 3H
4H

Lead is the C8, you see
xx KT9x xxxx AJx
AKx AQ8x Axx Txx

Your plan?

3.



Plan the defense.

Baby exercise

Mostly thinking out loud, so I figured I'd write it down.

Kxxx opp JTxxx for 1 loser

low to the K picks up Ax (2), AQ (1), Q (2)

running the J picks up Qx (2), AQ (1)

Did I get it right?

It's only after I work it out that I count out the symmetric cases. I really should work on these more.

Castro Valley Sectional 8/8

I had no idea how to declare this hand. I'm almost ashamed to admit that I made it. I really had no plan, it just sort of happened.

1H - (3C) - x - (p)
3S - (p) - 4S

Qxxx Kx AKxx xxx

AKxx QTxxx JTx J

CA lead, righty follows the Q. Small club to righty's K, you ruff. Now what? Your spade spots are truly puny.

Here's one I screwed up on defense. You lead to (1N) - 2D* - (2N) - (3N). You have Qx A9xxx Kxxxx x. What do you lead? Your bid showed diamonds and a major.

I led a heart, swayed by the H9 and the fact that 2N natural was based on my having shown diamonds. Of course, I knew my opponents weren't very sophisticated, so I probably should have ignored that.

More importantly, the DK is a slow entry, whereas the HA is a fast entry. If we get hearts set up, we may not have the tempo for me to get in with the diamond.

On this hand, partner has 3 small in hearts and QJ of diamonds. Declarer's diamonds split 3-3; it's just a simple matter of leading a diamond, overtaking the diamond return and clearing the suit. D'oh.